Q1. With reference to the Open market Operations, consider the following statements:

  1. It refers to a central bank buying or selling short-term Treasuries and other securities in the open market in order to influence the money supply.
  2. Buying securities through the open market operations reduces money from the system.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only            

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Option A is correct.

Statement 1 is correct. Open market operations (OMO) refers to a central bank buying or selling short-term Treasuries and other securities in the open market in order to influence the money supply, thus influencing short term interest rates.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Buying securities through the open market operations adds money to the system, making loans easier to obtain and interest rates decline.

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/o/openmarketoperations.asp

Q2. Consider the following statements:

  1. According to the Disturbed Areas (Special Courts) Act, 1976 once declared ‘disturbed’, the area has to maintain status quo for a minimum of three months.
  2. ‘Disturbed Areas Act’ of all the states of India, bans sale of property by a member of one religious community to a member of another community, without the prior approval of the district collector.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only            

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Option A is correct.        

Statement 1 is correct. According to the Disturbed Areas (Special Courts) Act, 1976 once declared ‘disturbed’, the area has to maintain status quo for a minimum of 3 months.

Statement 2 is incorrect. ‘Disturbed Areas Act’ of Gujarat, bans sale of property by a member of one religious community to a member of another community, without the prior approval of the district collector.         

https://freepresskashmir.news/2017/08/21/impose-disturbed-areas-act-to-prevent-muslims-from-acquiring-residential-properties-of-hindus-bjp-mla/

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2020:

  1. The FCRA is applicable to only NGOs, which intend to receive foreign donations.
  2. Media persons are also allowed to receive foreign contribution in India.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only            

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Option D is correct.        

Both statements are incorrect. The FCRA is applicable to all associations, groups and NGOs which intend to receive foreign donations. Members of the legislature and political parties, government officials, judges and media persons are prohibited from receiving any foreign contribution in India.

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/the-hindu-explains-what-is-foreign-contribution-regulation-act-and-how-does-it-control-donations/article32590504.ece#:~:text=The%20FCRA%20is%20applicable%20to,they%20comply%20with%20all%20norms.

Q4. Consider the following statements:

  1. Aquaponics is a combination of aquaculture and hydroponics in a symbiotic combination.
  2. Drip irrigation, deep culture and nutrient film technique are highly compatible to merge with growing fish.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only            

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Option C is correct.

Both statements are correct. Aquaponics is a combination of aquaculture and hydroponics in a symbiotic combination in which plants are fed with the aquatic animals’ discharge or waste. Drip irrigation, flood and drain, deep culture and nutrient film technique are highly compatible and customizable to merge with growing fish.

https://www.permaculturenews.org/2016/05/30/what-is-aquaponics-and-how-does-it-work/#:~:text=Aquaponics%20is%20a%20combination%20of,aquatic%20animals'%20discharge%20or%20waste.

Q5. Consider the following statements:

  1. Recognized political parties in India can have as many star campaigners as that in non-recognized parties.
  2. The list of star campaigners has to be communicated to the Chief Electoral Officer and Election Commission.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

 (c) Both 1 and 2       

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Option B is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect. A recognised political party can have 40 star campaigners and an unrecognised (but registered) political party can have 20.

Statement 2 is correct. The list of star campaigners has to be communicated to the Chief Electoral Officer and Election Commission within a week from the date of notification of an election.

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-what-does-removing-thakur-verma-from-list-of-star-campaigners-mean-for-them-bjp-6241237/

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the concept of the contempt of court in India:

  1. There were pre-Independence laws of contempt in India.
  2. In India, Criminal contempt is more complex than the Civil one.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

 (c) Both 1 and 2       

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Option C is correct.

Both statements are correct. There were pre-Independence laws of contempt in India. Besides the early High Courts, the courts of some princely states also had such laws. When the Constitution was adopted, contempt of court was made one of the restrictions on freedom of speech and expression. Separately, Article 129 of the Constitution conferred on the Supreme Court the power to punish contempt of itself. Article 215 conferred a corresponding power on the High Courts. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, gives statutory backing to the idea.

Civil contempt is fairly simple. It is committed when someone wilfully disobeys a court order, or wilfully breaches an undertaking given to court. Criminal contempt is more complex. It consists of three forms: (a) words, written or spoken, signs and actions that “scandalise” or “tend to scandalise” or “lower” or “tends to lower” the authority of any court (b) prejudices or interferes with any judicial proceeding and (c) interferes with or obstructs the administration of justice.

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/the-hindu-explains-what-is-contempt-of-court/article32249810.ece

Q7. Consider the following statements with respect to the Inter-state water dispute in India:

  1. The Article 262 of India’s Constitution provides for barring the Parliamentary jurisdiction over interstate river water disputes.
  2. Under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, a Water Disputes Tribunal is to be set up for adjudication of the dispute, within a year of receiving complaint from the states.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

 (c) Both 1 and 2       

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Option B is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Article 262 of India’s Constitution provides for barring the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction over interstate river water disputes.     

Statement 2 is correct. Under the act, Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, the central government is required to set up a Water Disputes Tribunal for adjudication of the dispute, within a year of receiving complaint from the states.

https://www.prsindia.org/billtrack/inter-state-river-water-disputes-amendment-bill-2019

https://www.cprindia.org/projects/supreme-court-and-interstate-river-water-disputes

Q8. Poverty and Shared Prosperity 2020 report is released by which one of the following institutions?

(a) International Monetary Fund               

(b) World Economic Forum

(c) United Nations Development Programme

(d) World Bank

Option D is correct. Poverty and Shared Prosperity 2020 report has been released recently by the World Bank.   

https://www.worldbank.org/en/publication/poverty-and-shared-prosperity

Ques  Ans:

1-(a)

2-(a)

3-(d)

4-(c)

5-(b)

6-(c)

7-(b)

8-(d)